Diagnostic Imaging I Palmer Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Rugger jersey spine is a radiographic feature of which condition?
• Trummerfeld zone is a radiographic feature associated with which condition?
• What is the clinical presentation of transient osteoporosis of the hip?
• Which statement about management of ankylosing spondylitis is correct?
• Reactive arthritis is also known as?
• Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease such as ulcerative colitis or Crohn's disease. It can also be Whipple disease or intestinal infections. Which of the following reflects this association?
• -2.0 T-score corresponds to which category?
• What age range is commonly affected by reactive arthritis?
• Which radiographic finding can be seen in SLE?
• Which of the following is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy?
• Osteitis condensans ilii is best described as?
• Which joint is commonly involved in ochronosis with chondrocalcinosis?
• Which pelvis finding is AS due to ossification of ligamentous insertional sites, presenting as whiskering of the ischial tuberosities?
• Which joint shows severe changes with radial subluxation in scleroderma?
• Radiographic features of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease include which of the following?
• Which lab finding is typical of reactive arthritis?
• What age is commonly affected by calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• What is hyperparathyroidism?
• What is an example of regional osseous demineralization?
• Interspinous ligament calcification corresponds to which radiographic sign?
• Which is an etiology of osteomalacia?
• What might secondary hyperparathyroidism result in?
• Which of the following is an iatrogenic cause of generalized osteoporosis?
• Reactive arthritis is more common in which gender?
• Which of the following is a differential diagnosis for ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which of the following is a key area of involvement in psoriatic arthritis?
• Which radiographic finding is the hallmark of rickets involving the growth plates?
• Peak radiographic changes occur at what time after immobilization?
• Scleroderma is also known as which condition?
• Which region is typically affected first in ankylosing spondylitis?
• CPPD crystal deposition is seen in which tissues?
• What are the four clinical stages of gout?
• Ochronosis inheritance pattern?
• Radiographic features of rickets are most prevalent at which site?
• Brown tumors are associated with which condition?
• A T-score of -2.6 is classified as which condition?
• Which phenomenon commonly accompanies scleroderma affecting peripheral circulation?
• Which imaging finding is commonly seen in osteomalacia?
• Which of the following is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy?
• In whom is scurvy commonly seen?
• In a pediatric patient, excessive growth hormone before the closure of growth plates results in which condition?
• Which is the standard management approach for psoriatic arthritis?
• In ankylosing spondylitis affecting the hips, which progression may occur?
• What imaging view is recommended to assess cervical involvement in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which radiographic sign is associated with sacroiliac changes in ankylosing spondylitis?
• What is a trummerfeld zone?
• Which finding is a general radiographic feature in the appendicular skeleton for reactive arthritis?
• A T-score compares bone density to which reference?
• In the altered trabecular pattern of post-menopausal osteoporosis, which statement is true?
• Hydroxyapatite deposition disease is also known as?
• Which of the following neoplastic diseases can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• In CRPS radiographs, which feature is typical?
• Which of the following is a classic clinical feature of acromegaly?
• What are the key areas of involvement for calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Growth hormone (GH) is produced by which part of the pituitary gland?
• Which radiographic jaw change is associated with acromegaly?
• Dermatologic features occur in psoriatic arthritis in approximately what percentage of patients?
• Patients with what condition commonly have secondary hyperparathyroidism?
• Which site is NOT considered peripheral for DEXA scanning?
• Which statement about psoriatic arthritis is NOT true?
• In psoriatic arthritis, the spine can be involved, including which region?
• Ochronosis occurs more commonly in which gender?
• What type of involvement is seen with calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Osteomalacia is described as
• What type of syndesmophyte formation is seen in psoriatic arthritis of the spine?
• Which statement best describes the sex predilection of ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which joints are commonly affected by SLE?
• Which sites are considered central for a DEXA scan?
• What labs are typically used to evaluate scleroderma?
• Enteropathic arthritis is best described as which of the following?
• Which of the following is a clinical feature commonly associated with scurvy?
• Which imaging view best demonstrates calcifications in the supraspinatus tendon?
• Which condition is a metabolic arthritic disorder?
• Which radiographic finding is represented by a dense zone of provisional calcification around the metaphysis and is known as the white line of Frankel?
• Longus colli deposition disease occurs at which site?
• What imaging modality provides a definitive diagnosis for CRPS?
• Pseudoarthrosis at the site of a pathologic fracture (carrot-stick) in ankylosing spondylitis is known as?
• Which radiographic feature of scurvy can be described as a dense zone of provisional calcification (white line of Frankel)?
• Psoriatic arthritis is described as which of the following?
• What does the ring epiphysis (Wimberger) represent?
• What is the initial pathologic process in ankylosing spondylitis?
• What dermatologic feature is commonly seen in psoriatic arthritis?
• In transient osteoporosis of the hip, is it more common in males or females?
• Which hormone is released by the anterior pituitary gland?
• What is an example of localized/focal demineralization?
• Gout is also known as which term?
• Hydroxyapatite deposition disease in the shoulder most commonly involves which tendon?
• Which hormone is released by the posterior pituitary gland?
• What is the most important area affected in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which of the following is an associated condition with scleroderma?
• Which of the following is a radiographic feature associated with acromegaly?
• Which congenital disorder is listed as a cause of generalized osteoporosis?
• Which statement best describes generalized osteoporosis in the context of systemic bone health?
• What age range is commonly affected by transient osteoporosis of the hip?
• Which radiographic change is seen in osteitis pubis aside from subchondral sclerosis?
• Common fracture sites associated with osteoporosis include which of the following?
• What is an example of generalized osseous demineralization?
• Which statement about radiographic features in chronic gout is true?
• Salt and pepper skull is typically seen in which condition?
• In psoriatic arthritis involving the sacroiliac joints/spine, which pattern is typical?
• Which is a common clinical feature of scleroderma?
• What is generalized osseous demineralization?
• What is a characteristic clinical feature of early ankylosing spondylitis?
• Shiny corner sign refers to which radiographic finding?
• Osteitis condensans ilii is more common in which group?
• Radiographic features become evident after immobilization in how many days?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for rickets?
• Which soft tissue change is associated with scleroderma?
• A DEXA report shows which scores?
• Which region is typically affected second in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which of the following is NOT typically classified under seronegative spondyloarthropathies?
• Which statement correctly describes the ring epiphysis (Wimberger) in scurvy?
• In diagnosing enteropathic arthritis, radiographs are identical to ankylosing spondylitis; diagnosis relies on what?
• SLE is a systemic disease that can affect which organ systems?
• What is calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease (CPPD) characterized by?
• Generalized osteoporosis can be caused by disorders in several categories. Which category includes hyperparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism, and Cushing disease?
• What is the recommended management action for ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which sites are considered peripheral for a DEXA scan?
• Combination of dagger sign and railroad sign is which sign?
• What is rickets?
• Which osseous change is characteristic of scleroderma?
• Which statement best describes the imaging relationship between disuse osteoporosis and CRPS?
• What is the most common location of post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• Fractures due to post-menopausal osteoporosis can be found where?
• Which of the following is NOT a radiographic feature of post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an association of ankylosing spondylitis?
• What are the causes of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a key area of involvement in psoriatic arthritis?
• Which radiographic feature is most characteristic of sacroiliac joints in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Disuse osteoporosis is defined as bone loss due to immobilization from which conditions?
• Which radiographic feature is seen in CRPS?
• Transient osteoporosis of the hip is also known as?
• Which of the following is a vascular disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• In ankylosing spondylitis, back stiffness can progress to complete loss of range of motion due to fusion of the spine, a condition called what?
• The most common etiology of regional osteoporosis is?
• What type of arthropathy is SLE associated with?
• Which radiographic finding is commonly associated with Cushing's disease?
• Osteopenia is defined as
• Is ankylosing spondylitis more common in males or females?
• Gout is more common in which sex?
• Which statement about vertebral fractures in osteoporosis is true?
• What are the different types of osseous demineralization?
• A T-score of -4 corresponds to how many times more likely to fracture relative to normal?
• Which laboratory test is commonly used for screening in SLE?
• What MRI finding may accompany shoulder involvement in AS?
• Which radiographic feature is described as 'mouse ear' appearance at the interphalangeal joints?
• Although transient osteoporosis of the hip classically is more common in males, it also affects who commonly?
• How does marginal syndesmophyte formation present radiographically?
• What is acromegaly?
• Which gastrointestinal manifestation can result from scleroderma?
• In early spinal involvement of ankylosing spondylitis, which lesion is typically seen along the anterior corners of the vertebral bodies, often leading to squared vertebrae?
• Which metabolite accumulates in ochronosis due to enzyme deficiency?
• Which imaging modality is NOT typically used to evaluate the pituitary gland?
• Subperiosteal hemorrhage and hemarthrosis are radiographic features of which disease?
• Which statement describes a general radiographic feature of reactive arthritis in the spine?
• Which statement describes radiographs in detecting density changes in osteoporosis?
• Which of the following is a general radiographic feature of reactive arthritis in the appendicular skeleton?
• Which radiographic finding can be seen in both rickets and scurvy?
• What age range is commonly affected by scleroderma?
• Which connective tissue disorder is associated with scleroderma?
• What is hydroxyapatite depositional disease?
• Scleroderma is more common in which sex?
• In acromegaly, degenerative joint disease tends to develop when?
• Transient osteoporosis of the hip is described as a self-limiting clinical diagnosis with limited regional osteoporosis that resolves in how many months?
• Which vitamin deficiency is responsible for scurvy?
• Which of the following is NOT a key involvement area for reactive arthritis?
• Which category includes multiple myeloma and lytic metastasis as causes of generalized osteoporosis?
• Which statement best describes the typical joint involvement in SLE?
• Which of the following is a nutritional disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• In ankylosing spondylitis, which anatomical site is first affected in the spine?
• Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease is also known as what?
• Which combination represents the classic triad of reactive arthritis?
• Which of the following joints is commonly involved in reactive arthritis?
• Which of the following are listed as causes of generalized osteoporosis?
• Which statement describes the Z-score reference for bone density?
• What is primary hyperparathyroidism?
• Seronegative spondyloarthropathies are defined as what characteristics?
• Which of the following is a radiographic feature of disuse osteoporosis?
• Shoulder involvement in AS can present as what erosion along the anterolateral aspect of the humeral head?
• Rickets is distinguished from osteomalacia primarily by involvement of which anatomical structures?
• Which marker is commonly positive in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Are calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease and hydroxyapatite deposition disease the same entity?
• Which radiographic feature is commonly seen in calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Pitted nails are seen in psoriatic arthritis and are associated with changes in which joints?
• Pelkin spurs are metaphyseal spurs that result in what appearance?
• What is the radiographic feature of osteitis condensans ilii?
• Which imaging modalities are typically used to evaluate the pituitary gland?
• Which radiographic feature is NOT typical of CRPS?
• What is the typical clinical presentation of post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• Which radiographic feature is associated with osteitis pubis?
• Marginal syndesmophyte formation in AS may be accompanied by calcification of which structure?
• What is scleroderma?
• Which statement about lab diagnostics in post-menopausal osteoporosis is true?
• In SLE, central nervous system involvement accounts for approximately what percentage?
• Which of the following is a metabolic/endocrine disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• Which radiographic descriptor is associated with sacroiliac joint changes in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which dermatologic manifestation in reactive arthritis can present as penile lesions?
• Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease is more common in which sex?
• A T-score of -2.5 with a fragility fracture corresponds to which condition?
• In ankylosing spondylitis, which joints are primarily involved in fusion as the disease progresses?
• Which radiographic feature is acro-osteolysis?
• Which radiographic feature is most characteristic at sites of enthesis in psoriatic arthritis?
• Which condition describes deposits of urate crystals in soft tissues forming nodules?
• What are the key areas of involvement for hydroxyapatite depositional disease?
• Which radiographic feature is associated with enthesitis in psoriatic arthritis?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for rickets?
• What is the most common site of involvement for gout?
• Enthesitis in ankylosing spondylitis leads to which sequence of changes?
• What is the most common type of generalized osteoporosis?
• Ankylosing spondylitis can lead to fusion of which joints?
• What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?
• SLE is more common in which gender?
• Which anticonvulsant is listed as a risk factor for rickets?
• In SLE, gastrointestinal involvement accounts for approximately what percentage?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a presenting symptom of SLE in the source material?
• What is secondary hyperparathyroidism?
• Which radiographic deformity is associated with scleroderma?
• Which laboratory finding is most commonly associated with gout?
• Which soft tissue sign is associated with acromegaly on imaging?
• What percentage of patients with ulcerative colitis present with enteropathic arthritis?
• Post-menopausal osteoporosis is usually symptomatic only if?
• A T-score of -3 corresponds to how many times more likely to fracture relative to normal?
• Transient osteoporosis most commonly affects which joint?
• Pelligrini-Steidi sign is associated with hydroxyapatite deposition in which structure?
• Which serologic finding is typical in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Cushing's disease is best defined as
• Which corticosteroid-related complication is associated with SLE treatment?
• Which stage is characterized by a red hot swollen joint?
• Which of the following is not listed as a type of osseous demineralization?
• What is ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which of the following is a congenital disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• Which of the following is a congenital disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• Osteomalacia is clinically asymptomatic unless?
• What age range is commonly affected by psoriatic arthritis?
• What is tertiary hyperparathyroidism?
• What is a scorbutic zone?
• Males catchup to females in terms of bone loss by what decades of life?
• Which T-score range is considered normal?
• What is gout?
• Localized/focal osseous demineralization is characterized by which pattern?
• Complex regional pain syndrome is also known as which of the following?
• In hyperparathyroidism, bone resorption patterns include subperiosteal, subchondral, subligamentous, and acro-osteolysis. Which of the following is a described pattern?
• Which radiographic feature is the scorbutic zone?
• In ochronosis, which spinal change may be seen?
• What is the etiology for hydroxyapatite depositional disease?
• Which age range is commonly affected by SLE?
• Post-menopausal osteoporosis is more common in females and affects them during what decades of life?
• Which imaging feature differentiates disuse osteoporosis from early CRPS?
• Pubic symphyseal enthesitis/erosions is a radiographic feature of AS in which region?
• In hydroxyapatite deposition disease of the shoulder, calcifications are best seen in which rotator cuff tendon on an external rotation view?
• What imaging modality is preferred for detecting density changes in post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• Regional osseous demineralization is defined as involvement of
• What age range is common for gout?
• What is scurvy commonly known as?
• Which radiographic feature is associated with dactylitis (sausage digits) in psoriatic arthritis?
• Which of the following is a characteristic facial feature of Cushing's disease?
• Which radiographic feature is NOT typically seen in osteomalacia?
• What is a key joint feature in SLE?
• Ochronosis is also known as which condition?
• In ochronosis, which pattern describes joint involvement in non-axial joints?
• Which radiographic finding may be an early sign of acromegaly?
• Which body region is most commonly affected by scleroderma?
• SLAC wrist is associated with calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease and involves which change?
• What is a radiographic feature of transient osteoporosis of the hip?
• Regional osseous demineralization is best described as involvement of
• Ward's triangle in osteoporosis is described as:
• A T-score of -2 corresponds to how many times more likely to fracture relative to normal?
• Which pattern of joint involvement is most characteristic of psoriatic arthritis?
• Osteoporosis is described in the material as
• Which symptom is commonly associated with osteitis pubis?
• Which set lists a central DEXA scanning site?
• Which clinical feature is typical of ochronosis?
• Which statement best describes how a DEXA scan quantifies bone mass?
• Rugger jersey spine is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Ochronosis is characterized by deficiency of which enzyme?
• Ankylosis of the facet joints yields which radiographic sign?
• Which radiographic feature is commonly seen in chronic gout?
• Which stage is associated with chronic tophaceous gout?
• What is osteitis pubis?
• In transient osteoporosis of the hip, which statement about the joint spaces is correct?
• Reactive arthritis is believed to be what?
• What is systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) best described as?
• Generalized osseous demineralization involves